If God banned polygamy in the NT, then we would expect very plain statements of proof. The Laws given by God for polygamy are very clear and plain and we can't cancel that which is clear with that which is seen in theological argument.
There is not one verse in the NT which bans or abrogates God's laws for polygamy.
In the future, God will rebuild Israel with polygyny (Is.4), does God thus unban polygamy at some point? Was it permitted in the OT banned in the NT and then re-introduced in the Kingdom?
And Ashur the
father of Tekoa had two wives,
Christians remain convinced the New Testament condemns or abolishes polygamy. This is incorrect.
To support this indoctrinated concept, traditionalists turn to the well worn passage about bishops and deacons as found in 1Tim.3 and Titus. Then quickly follows Matt. 19 which is about divorce.
Where exactly does this
verse abrogate polygyny? It simply says the bishop must be the husband
of one wife. How is that a universal cancellation of polygamy?
For this following verse go here.
How is it that if this bans polygamy, it is then ignored when women are placed in office as deacons and Bishops?
Ah but we should all aspire to be bishops so we should all have one wife. Now there is a very loose and desperate argument for you. But we ask again, where, how precisely does this verse cancel polygamy? It doesn't.
Look very carefully at this
passage. See also here.
How does this passage about divorce, cancel polygamy? It can't it doesn't. Our Lord said a married man and woman were one flesh and could not divorce save for adultery. If Christians divorce under no fault laws today, and return to church either single or with new spouses, aren't they adulterers? But in any event, the Lord did not say a man could only have one wife or cancel polygyny in that passage above. This is just another desperation twist of Scripture to support a man made concept, that Christ abolished polygamy.
What about this passage
(see also here);
Did you know that two
different words are used in the original writing of Paul for OWN? But in
any event, this does not ban or cancel polygyny. Jacob was one flesh
with each of his wives. The four wives were his OWN and the four wives
had their OWN husband, Jacob. Jacob obeyed 1Cor.7 even though it wasn't
written back then. Jacob had his own wife, all four of them.
Here is a little
more on Matt.19.
Notice that since the Lord had given laws for polygyny it
was a simple matter to take another wife but how hard hearted was it to
divorce and so avoid the responsibilities of the Law (Ex.21:10).
Remember, these Pharisees tithed mint and cumin but failed in their
obligations to their parents (Matt.7:1-12).
The Law of the Land is not "enforced" against polygyny. IN fact in some countries under common law a "mistress" has rights against a married man. In many countries men cohabit with women not married and this is OK, only when he marries them is it wicked. What a joke.
way does this passage from Ephesians cancel or ban polygamy? It doesn't.
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