if the deacon/bishop must be the husband of one wife how come we have women as deacons and Pastors? We can when we use the pick and choose approach to the Word of God
..Gideon had seventy sons, ..For he had many wives. And his concubine, who was in Shechem, also bore him a son. Jdg.8:30-31
tradition is that the New Testament cancelled or condemned polygamy but
this is not so.
All Christians MUST have more than one child, to cease having children after one is contrary to the implied command.
All Christians MUST have well disciplined households, and all children must be believers. All Christians should not divorce and remarry or even be a widower.
Perhaps women can not be Christians (if we follow the implied command "logic") and certainly MUST not be deacons. It would be the height of hypocrisy to use this verse against polygyny then elect women as deacons or worse still to position of Pastor. Single men must not be deacons or bishops either, which would wipe out positions in some denominations.
So check out all MALE members of your church before appointing bishops or deacons. If any have had issues outside the assemblies where blame could be levelled against them, are single, or married without children or only one child or children who are not believers, they are disqualified for church positions according to the instructions in 1Tim.3:1-12.
But we know
verses are about bishops and deacons and the criteria needed for them to
hold office, these requirements are not for the general Christian community.
We can be certain there would have been some within the assemblies who
did not meet these standards and were thus disqualified from holding
The fact remains, the Lord used polygyny in the past, came through polygynous families, and rebuilds Israel with polygyny IN THE FUTURE, so the implied command position using these passages is contrary to the plain statements of the Word of God and are contrary to His own actions.
Some interpretations suggest the word “one” could be translated “first”, thus bishops and deacons should have at least the first wife. If this be true then the following interpretations are valid from these passages. The bishops and deacons should have at least the first wife but if they had other wives as well, they could still hold office. They were to be the husband of only one wife or they should not have divorced the first wife (Lev.21:7). Try running these by your faith and order committee or the general synod.
Lord spoke strongly against discarding the wife of thy youth in Malachi
2:14-15. Jewish husbands were not to mistreat their first wife by either
divorcing her or withholding her rights of marriage. This did not mean
they were to have the wife of their youth ONLY. Paul knew these OT
passages which could be the very basis of this statement;
These passages can not be used to argue monogamy only or that polygyny
was banned, condemned or cancelled.
Polygamy is not
condemned in these passages or anywhere else in the New Testament. There
implied command against polygyny in any NT passage.
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Bishops and deacons
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